You wrote recently that according to Polish IPN reports 90% of all NKVD were Jewish...therefore why would there be no Jewish NKVD involved at Katyn? Were they excluded? Why? If as you say Jews made up 90% of NKVD would they therefore have no influence to have been involved in this crime as well?
Quite simple, soviet high command tried to keep it a secret, most officers involved directly in the executions were from the ass end of Russia rather than locao population.
Stretching the bounds on reason somewhat I think you would agree?
Not at all, all it takes is having an education instead of having an opinion.
On what factual basis do you make such a claim? How many and which crimes are you referring to?
polonica.net/Polski_Holocaust.htm
Thats an online example, professors Rawicki "Zapomniana wojna" is one of many publications i could commend.
As for which crimes ? The rounding up and executions of all higher classes citizen in Eastern Poland, aiding NKVD in finding escaped officers, being directly responsible for ethnic cleansing of at least serveral settlements ( Naliboki rings the bell ) ?
The scope of jewish crimes against Poles far outstretches any crimes done to them by the polish, where in case of Poland these were rare singular cases Jews took it upon themsevles to murer polish citizens in an organized and mass manner enthusiastically taking part in it while under protection of the Soviet Russia.
Solomon Morel whom Israel harbored alone killed more Polish people than all Jews killed by Poles between 1939 and 1945, the number of victims is still rising and that was ONE Jew and he wasnt even the most notorious or effective.