Genetive, "jej" and "jego"

Hi, I'm a bit confused about the use of jej and jego: could someone give me a quick explanation with a couple of examples?

E.g. To jest mój dom.
What if it's Piotr's house? if it's Aneta's does it change? and what if it's the child's house?
We are not allowed to use the Christian names, so I have to use the equivalent of his / her and its.

Many thanks,

Mel

The only change depends on whose object it is. If it's female's then we us "jej" (her, hers), otherwise we use "jego" (his) for both male and neutral. These pronouns do not change their form regardless of the object's gender:

jego - its, his (takes no case forms)
jej - her, hers jej (takes no case forms)

Examples:

male:

To jest jego dom (This is his house)
Chodzmy do jego domu (Let's go to his house)
Spojrz na jego dom (Look at his house)

To jest jego mama (This is his mom)
Chodzmy do jego mamy (Let's go to his mom)
Spojrz na jego mame (Look at his mom)

and the same ones (respectively) for female possessive pronoun:

To jest jej dom (This is her house)
Chodzmy do jej domu (Let's go to her house)
Spojrz na jej dom (Look at her house)

To jest jej mama (This is her mom)
Chodzmy do jej mamy (Let's go to her mom)
Spojrz na jej mame (Look at her mom)

For once, something easy, eh? ;)

Yeah, easy for me 'cos it's like English: rather harder for the rest of the class as they are native speakers of French, so the possessive agrees with the noun of the thing possessed not the possessor.

I'm clear about it now,
thanks again,
Mel

Actually, with these examples it's the other way around :)

Look at hese axamples again:

Masculine possessor:

To jest jego dom - the thing possessed is masculine
To jest jego mama - the thing possessed is feminine

Feminine possessor:

To jest jej dom - This is her house, the thing possessed is masculine
To jest jej mama - This is her mom, the thing possessed is feminine

Sorry, my mistake for not making myself clear: I meant it is harder for native speakers of French (the rest of my class - I live in France) because in French it is the other way round: the possessive goes with the thing possessed not the possessor, whereas in English and Polish it depends on the case of the possessor.

Not a biggie at all. I help when I can. I used to teach years ago. It was ESL though :)


Yeah, if that weren't for French, then Polish would be much easier ;)
Good luck.

It can be used to use emphasis as well...
ex. 'Jego nie znam', I don't know him

Good point!