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Housing and ownership

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Jan 20, 10, 16:35 #1

My wife and I bought a property in Poland circa '92. At that time; due to me not being a Polish citizen; I was unable to be a joint owner and in fact did not exist to all intents and purposes, despite the full amount and all costs being paid for by me. Will my position have now changed and would it be automatic and retrospective or as I suspect will it involve much paper-work and many back-handers and palm greasing as seemed the way during the four years we were resident in Poland.

It perhaps wouldn't make any real difference since I trust and trusted my wife for many years not to just sell it behind my back. However, there is a point that has come to my attention that unnerves me a little as we both grow older.

She has a daughter from a previous marriage; lived entirely in Poland; she joined me in the UK after both of us had secured divorces. It was suggested to me that should I survive my wife, the property would automatically belong to the daughter. Is this remotely possible ?

The reason for this now being somewhat more significant is the looming possibility of us returning to live in Poland. I should hate to think that I was potentially going to be relieved of my property and family home hard on the heels of the death of my wife. Is Polish law so archaic ?

As a bye the bye, does anyone have the answer to a simple question that is unrelated to the above, I've tried the internet to no avail. Q. Is there a minimum ceiling height for upper storey extensions, ie I intend; if we return and subject to relevant permissions being granted, to add an extension to the flat roof. The house is free-standing and two storey and the plan would call for a further storey set under a multi pitched roof; mansard; giving effectively a new floor plan that could be likened to a bungalow on top; first floor and attic.

Any relevant info. would be welcomed by a new member, Nara.

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